Jon Gary Williams sent this question for Mormons to a discussion list, and he gave me permission to post it here.
Here is a devastating question for Mormons. Several times I have asked the official LDS web site for an answer. Never a response. And from the nature of the question it is no wonder. Here’s the question.
I have found something that is disturbing. In my reading I noticed that II Nephi 15:21 is a direct quote of John 10:16 in the KJV of the Bible. Since the KJV dates only to 1611 A.D., how can this be explained? And since the Book of Mormon was unknown in 1611, this means also that the KJV translators could not have copied it. I considered that this may be just a coincidence. However, this seems highly unlikely, not to mention that III Nephi 15:21 also contains the italicized word “and” supplied by the KJV translators. Can you please give me an explanation?
Regards, Jon Gary Williams
Update: Jon tells me you can get his free book The Book of Mormon: A Book of Error and Fraud by writing him here.